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Intermediate and Advanced Accounting

Seventeen US GAAP lessons from intermediate topics (revenue, inventory, leases, taxes, pensions, EPS) through advanced topics: business combinations, consolidation, equity method, foreign currency, hedging, partnerships and not-for-profits, and the conceptual framework.

Combined Intermediate and Advanced Accounting study module, not an exhaustive textbook or professional advice. Covers revenue, FIFO/average inventory, held-and-used assets, fixed-rate debt, lessee leases, deferred taxes, defined benefit pensions, EPS, business combinations, consolidation and noncontrolling interest, the equity method and equity securities, foreign currency translation, derivatives and basic hedge accounting, partnerships and not-for-profit net assets, and the conceptual framework. Omits detailed disclosures, government (GASB) mechanics, variable interest entities, hedge effectiveness testing and industry-specific rules.

Introductory financial accounting: debits and credits, accruals and financial statements; algebra and present value.

Course outline

  1. Revenue is a promise fulfilled

    Allocate a bundle price and recognize only satisfied promises.

  2. Inventory: two decisions, not one

    Separate cost assignment from the FIFO/average lower-of-cost-and-NRV test.

  3. Depreciation is not an impairment test

    Apply cost allocation, the recoverability gate and fair-value measurement separately.

  4. Bonds: coupon is not expense

    Reconcile effective-interest expense, cash and carrying value.

  5. Leases: start with unpaid payments

    Measure initial liability and explain ROU-asset adjustments.

  6. One liability, two expense patterns

    Contrast finance and operating lessee accounting under US GAAP.

  7. Deferred tax is not a plug

    Classify reversals and roll deferred balances into total tax expense.

  8. Pension funding is not pension cost

    Separate periodic cost, plan assets and the projected obligation.

  9. EPS counts time, not just shares

    Time-weight common shares and compute net option dilution.

  10. Convertible debt restores earnings too

    Apply if-converted EPS and test dilution after other instruments.

  11. Business combinations: pay, measure, leave goodwill

    Apply the acquisition method and compute goodwill as a residual.

  12. Consolidation: one entity, no internal profit

    Eliminate intercompany profit and split income between parent and NCI.

  13. Equity method versus fair value for investments

    Pick the method by influence and track the carrying amount.

  14. Foreign currency: translation versus remeasurement

    Compute a translation adjustment and place it correctly.

  15. Derivatives and hedge accounting basics

    Distinguish fair value and cash flow hedges.

  16. Partnerships and not-for-profit equity

    Allocate partnership income and read net assets of a not-for-profit.

  17. Conceptual framework and the GAAP hierarchy

    Use the objectives and qualitative characteristics to judge an accounting choice.

Sources and curriculum note

Reviewed October 4, 2026; lessons 11 to 17 added October 5, 2026. US GAAP nongovernmental business-entity setting. Codification is authoritative; historical ASUs communicate amendments. Official Codification access required sign-in, so selected text was read on identified third-party hosts. Not a complete current-GAAP, adoption-date or disclosure compliance audit.

Complete course reading notes

Read every lesson below. The interactive reader above contains the same explanations, with visual tools and quizzes.

1. Revenue is a promise fulfilled

Learning goal: Allocate a bundle price and recognize only satisfied promises.

Topic 606 organizes revenue around identifying a contract, identifying performance obligations, determining the transaction price, allocating that price, and recognizing revenue when or as an obligation is satisfied. These are analytical steps, not five journal entries. Cash receipt alone does not establish performance. The examples assume enforceable contracts that meet the recognition criteria.

A distinct promise must be capable of benefiting the customer and separately identifiable in the contract. A device and routine support can qualify, but two lines on an invoice do not prove distinctness. An integrated construction service could instead be one obligation. Distinctness is supplied in these exercises rather than inferred about a real business.

Allocate fixed consideration in proportion to observable standalone selling prices, assuming no specific allocation exception. A bundle discount reduces both allocations. Then analyze control transfer separately: device revenue at delivery and support revenue over time when the customer simultaneously receives and consumes benefits. Even service supports an elapsed-time measure of progress.

Variable consideration, financing components, warranties and modifications can change the model. None is present here. A contract liability is consideration received before the associated promise is fulfilled. Keeping allocation and timing in separate columns is an editorial teaching strategy, not an assertion about measured student error rates.

Worked example

Original hypothetical. A prepaid bundle costs 1,200. A distinct device has standalone price 1,200; 12 months of distinct even support have standalone price 300. Find revenue and liability at device delivery.

  1. Standalone total=1,200+300=1,500.
  2. Weights: device=1,200/1,500=80%; support=20%.
  3. Allocate consideration: device=960; support=240.
  4. At delivery debit cash 1,200, credit revenue 960 and contract liability 240.
  5. Each support month debit liability 20 and credit revenue 20.
  6. After three months cumulative revenue=960+60=1,020; remaining liability=180.
Practice problem and solution

New original hypothetical. A distinct device and six months of even support have standalone prices 1,600 and 400. Prepaid bundle price 1,500. Device delivered and two support months completed. Find cumulative revenue.

Total standalone price=2,000. Device allocation=1,500(0.8)=1,200. Support allocation=300. Two of six months recognize 100. Cumulative revenue=1,300; liability=200.

Mental model: Allocation answers how much; performance answers when.

Common trap: Recognizing the standalone price instead of allocated consideration.

2. Inventory: two decisions, not one

Learning goal: Separate cost assignment from the FIFO/average lower-of-cost-and-NRV test.

Inventory cost assignment and subsequent measurement answer different questions. FIFO and weighted average first assign available costs to units sold and units remaining. Topic 330 uses lower of cost and net realizable value for inventory measured by methods other than LIFO or the retail inventory method. ASU 2015-11 explicitly leaves those two methods outside its simplified test.

NRV is estimated selling price in the ordinary course less reasonably predictable completion, disposal and transportation costs. It is not replacement cost or gross selling price. Here units are identical, every purchase precedes the only sale, and freight, discounts and returns are absent. Periodic weighted average is therefore available cost divided by available units.

FIFO sends earliest costs to cost of goods sold and leaves the later unsold layers in inventory. Weighted average spreads cost across all available units. Rising prices make FIFO ending inventory higher in the simple sequence below, but that observation does not prescribe a method for every company. Follow the stated accounting cost-flow policy.

After assigning cost, compare with NRV at the appropriate assessment level. The examples assume one homogeneous pool and an appropriate pool-level comparison. A write-down increases expense and reduces inventory; it does not change units sold. No LIFO reserve, retail computation or subsequent recovery is included.

Worked example

Original hypothetical. Buy 100 units at 10 and 100 at 14, then sell 120. Periodic FIFO. Remaining units sell for 15 and need disposal costs of 3 each. Find the write-down.

  1. Available cost=1,000+1,400=2,400; units=200.
  2. FIFO COGS=100(10)+20(14)=1,280.
  3. Ending cost=80(14)=1,120.
  4. NRV=80(15-3)=960.
  5. Write-down=1,120-960=160. Debit inventory loss/expense and credit inventory or its allowance.
  6. After adjustment the pool carries at 960.
Practice problem and solution

New original hypothetical. Buy 60 units at 8 and 90 at 12 before selling 100. Periodic weighted average. Remaining units sell for 11 with disposal costs 2 each. Find the write-down.

Available cost=60(8)+90(12)=1,560; units=150; average=10.40. Ending 50 units cost 520. NRV=50(11-2)=450. Write-down=70.

Mental model: Cost flow assigns cost; the measurement test can reduce it.

Common trap: Confusing assigned cost and net proceeds.

3. Depreciation is not an impairment test

Learning goal: Apply cost allocation, the recoverability gate and fair-value measurement separately.

Depreciation allocates depreciable cost over estimated useful life systematically and rationally. It does not attempt to keep book value equal to market price. Straight-line expense here is cost less residual divided by useful life, assuming full years of use. An asset market-price decline is not automatically the annual depreciation charge.

Topic 360 held-and-used impairment is separate. When indicators require testing, compare asset-group carrying amount with undiscounted cash flows from use and eventual disposal. If not recoverable, measure loss as carrying amount less fair value. Undiscounted flows decide whether a loss is measured; they do not measure its size.

Each machine here is assumed to be the appropriate asset group because its cash flows are separately identifiable. Actual grouping is a judgment. A test is stipulated to be required and fair value is supplied. The cases do not imply that every small market-price decline automatically triggers impairment.

A lower fair value alone produces no held-and-used loss if the undiscounted gate passes. Held-for-sale assets follow another model and are outside scope. After recognized impairment, the reduced basis affects future depreciation. The loss is not another payment for the machine.

Worked example

Original hypothetical. Cost 100,000; residual 10,000; useful life five years. After two full years, a required held-and-used test gives undiscounted flows 60,000 and fair value 50,000. Find impairment.

  1. Depreciable base=100,000-10,000=90,000.
  2. Annual allocation=90,000/5=18,000.
  3. After two years carrying=100,000-36,000=64,000.
  4. Undiscounted 60,000<64,000: not recoverable.
  5. Loss=64,000-50,000=14,000.
  6. Debit loss and reduce carrying value to 50,000. Future depreciation uses the new basis.
Practice problem and solution

New original hypothetical. Cost 96,000; residual 6,000; life six years. After three full years a required test gives undiscounted flows 45,000 and fair value 39,000. Find impairment.

Annual allocation=(96,000-6,000)/6=15,000. Carrying after three years=51,000. Flows 45,000<51,000, so fail. Loss=51,000-39,000=12,000.

Mental model: Depreciation allocates; impairment tests recovery.

Common trap: Using the recoverability shortfall as the measured loss.

4. Bonds: coupon is not expense

Learning goal: Reconcile effective-interest expense, cash and carrying value.

For plain fixed-rate amortized-cost debt, the interest method produces a level effective rate on opening net carrying amount. Coupon rate determines cash interest; effective yield determines recognized interest cost. A discount means initial proceeds are less than eventual principal repayment. The entire difference is not expensed on issuance.

Interest expense equals opening carrying amount times the effective rate per payment period. Cash interest equals face amount times coupon rate per period. Discount amortization is expense less cash and raises carrying value. For a premium, cash exceeds expense and carrying value falls. The examples exclude issuance costs, embedded features, fair-value elections and capitalized borrowing costs.

Price the bond by discounting each coupon and final principal at the market yield. Keep full precision and round only displayed results. A plain bond schedule should reach face value just before principal repayment. Annual payments require annual rates; do not halve a rate merely because many textbook bonds pay semiannually.

The model assumes fixed cash flows and no early redemption, modification, put or call. Real unusual terms can alter accounting. The interest-method definition and ASC 835-30 text were fetched in the cited reproduction; the schedules below are original calculations, not reported company data.

Worked example

Original hypothetical. Two-year face 10,000 bond, coupon 6%, annual yield 8%, year-end annual payments. Find proceeds and first closing carrying value.

  1. Coupon=10,000(0.06)=600.
  2. Proceeds=600/1.08+10,600/1.08^2=9,643.3470507545, displayed 9,643.35.
  3. Interest=9,643.3470507545(0.08)=771.4677640604.
  4. Discount amortization=171.4677640604.
  5. Closing carrying=9,814.8148148148, displayed 9,814.81.
  6. Entry: debit interest 771.47; credit cash 600 and discount 171.47.
  7. Second expense=785.1851851852; after coupon carrying reaches 10,000 before repayment.
Practice problem and solution

New original hypothetical. Three-year face 20,000 bond, coupon 5%, yield 7%, annual year-end payments and no costs. Find carrying value after the second coupon, to cents.

Coupon=1,000. Initial PV=1,000/1.07+1,000/1.07^2+21,000/1.07^3=18,950.2735822356. First closing=19,276.7927329898. Second closing=19,626.1682242991, or 19,626.17.

Mental model: Opening carrying amount times yield equals interest cost.

Common trap: Displaying rounded components as an exact unrounded identity.

5. Leases: start with unpaid payments

Learning goal: Measure initial liability and explain ROU-asset adjustments.

Topic 842 generally recognizes lessee right-of-use assets and lease liabilities for both finance and operating leases, with applicable exceptions such as an elected short-term exemption. A lease conveys control over use of an identified asset for a period in exchange for consideration. Calling a contract a rental does not by itself answer that definition.

At commencement the liability is the present value of lease payments not yet paid. A fixed amount paid immediately is not an unpaid liability discounted one year. Instead that prepayment affects the ROU asset. Make a timeline before computing: an annuity beginning now and an annuity beginning next year have different values.

The initial ROU asset begins with liability, adds payments made at or before commencement and qualifying initial direct costs, and subtracts incentives received. There are no costs or incentives here. Qualifying initial direct costs are incremental costs that would not have arisen without obtaining the lease, not every negotiation expense.

The discount rate is the implicit rate when readily determinable, otherwise generally the incremental borrowing rate, with permitted alternatives for eligible entities. The rate supplied here is assumed appropriate. Renewal options, purchase options, variable payments and residual guarantees are absent. Computed liability covers the specified fixed unpaid payments only.

Worked example

Original hypothetical. Three-year lease: pay 10,000 at commencement and each of the next two year-ends. Appropriate annual rate 5%; no adjustments. Find initial liability and asset.

  1. The commencement payment is already paid.
  2. Unpaid payments are 10,000 at t=1 and t=2.
  3. Liability=10,000/1.05+10,000/1.05^2=18,594.10430839.
  4. ROU asset=liability+10,000=28,594.10430839.
  5. Debit ROU 28,594.10, credit liability 18,594.10 and cash 10,000.
  6. Operating classification does not erase a nonexempt liability.
Practice problem and solution

New original hypothetical. Three-year lease: pay 12,000 at commencement and the next two year-ends. Appropriate annual rate 6%; no costs or incentives. Find initial ROU to cents.

Unpaid liability=12,000/1.06+12,000/1.06^2=22,000.71199644. ROU adds prepayment 12,000, giving 34,000.71.

Mental model: Unpaid payments form liability; asset adjustments follow.

Common trap: Discounting an immediate payment as though it occurs later.

6. One liability, two expense patterns

Learning goal: Contrast finance and operating lessee accounting under US GAAP.

Classification affects expense and cash-flow presentation, not existence of the nonexempt lessee obligation. Topic 842 finance criteria include ownership transfer, a reasonably certain purchase, a major-part term, substantially-all fair-value payments, or a sufficiently specialized asset with no alternative use. Classification is supplied in these cases; no obsolete mandatory 75% or 90% rule is invented.

Finance leases recognize separate liability interest and ROU amortization. For this no-transfer, no-purchase case, amortize the asset over the three-year lease term. Declining liability interest plus constant asset amortization front-loads total expense. Ownership transfer or a reasonably certain purchase can change the asset amortization period.

The simple operating case recognizes a straight-line single lease cost. Liability accretion still appears in its rollforward. ROU reduction is single cost less that accretion, balancing the total expense. A single expense does not imply that the lease has no liability or that every accounting entry just debits rent and credits cash.

Under US GAAP finance-lease principal cash repayments are financing, and interest payments are operating. Operating-lease payments are operating. These are not IFRS classification claims. The examples exclude incentives, impairment, reassessment and variable rent, and every payment occurs at year-end.

Worked example

Original hypothetical. Three payments 10,000 at year-end, rate 5%, initial ROU equals liability, no transfer or purchase. Compare first-year finance and operating expense.

  1. PV=10,000/1.05+10,000/1.05^2+10,000/1.05^3=27,232.4802937061.
  2. Interest=PV(0.05)=1,361.6240146853.
  3. Closing liability=PV+interest-10,000=18,594.1043083914.
  4. Finance amortization=PV/3=9,077.4934312354.
  5. Finance total=10,439.1174459207, displayed 10,439.12.
  6. Operating single cost=30,000/3=10,000.
  7. Operating ROU reduction=10,000-interest=8,638.3759853147; closing ROU=18,594.1043083914.
Practice problem and solution

New original hypothetical. Three-year operating lease with 15,000 equal year-end payments, annual rate 6%, no adjustments or impairment. Find first-year ROU reduction to cents.

PV=15,000(1/1.06+1/1.06^2+1/1.06^3)=40,095.17924192454. Accretion=2,405.71075451547. Single cost=15,000. ROU reduction=12,594.29.

Mental model: Recognition and expense pattern are separate.

Common trap: Reusing old off-balance-sheet operating-lease treatment.

7. Deferred tax is not a plug

Learning goal: Classify reversals and roll deferred balances into total tax expense.

Temporary differences concern future tax consequences of recovering assets or settling liabilities. An asset book amount above tax basis commonly produces a taxable difference when future recovery creates taxable amounts beyond remaining tax basis. A warranty liability can produce a DTA if settlement will generate a future deduction. Those consequences are stated assumptions, not universal rules for every balance-sheet gap.

Topic 740 measurement uses enacted law and the rate expected to apply on reversal. A proposed rate change is not anticipated. All exercise rates are hypothetical enacted rates, not claims about the actual US statutory rate. Permanent differences do not reverse and do not by themselves generate deferred balances, though they can affect current tax calculations.

A DTA is reduced by a valuation allowance when the evidence makes it more likely than not that some or all will not be realized. This is an evidence-based recoverability conclusion, not an arbitrary reserve percentage. The worked case assumes enough appropriate taxable income and no allowance. Jurisdictional netting, uncertain positions and tax effects in OCI are omitted.

When every relevant change runs through continuing operations, deferred expense equals the increase in DTL less increase in net DTA. Total expense equals current tax plus deferred expense. Closing balances and period expense differ whenever opening balances are nonzero. Calculate the balance first, then its change.

Worked example

Original hypothetical. Asset book 100,000, tax basis 70,000; warranty liability 20,000 deductible on settlement. Assumed enacted rate 25%, opening balances zero, no allowance, current tax 18,000. Find total expense.

  1. Taxable difference=30,000; DTL=7,500.
  2. Deductible difference=20,000; DTA=5,000.
  3. Deferred expense=7,500-5,000=2,500.
  4. Total tax expense=18,000+2,500=20,500.
  5. Debit tax expense 20,500 and DTA 5,000; credit payable 18,000 and DTL 7,500.
  6. Debits and credits both total 25,500.
Practice problem and solution

New original hypothetical. Closing taxable difference 40,000 and deductible 12,000; assumed enacted rate 20%. Opening DTL 5,000, DTA 1,000. No allowance; all changes through income. Current tax 11,000. Find total expense.

Closing DTL=8,000; DTA=2,400. Increases are 3,000 and 1,400. Deferred expense=1,600; total=12,600.

Mental model: Measure balance first, then the change.

Common trap: Treating hypothetical enacted rates as real statutory rates.

8. Pension funding is not pension cost

Learning goal: Separate periodic cost, plan assets and the projected obligation.

A defined benefit obligation reflects benefits attributed to service, measured with actuarial assumptions. PBO may incorporate future compensation where the formula depends on it. Service cost reflects work this period; interest reflects passage of time on a discounted obligation. Neither automatically equals employer cash contributions.

In the specified simple periodic-cost model, add service and interest, subtract expected return, and add applicable prior-service and loss amortization. Actual and expected returns are different quantities. Actual return changes plan assets; their difference can affect OCI and later amortization rather than replacing expected return mechanically. The treatment of gains and losses has permitted policies beyond this simple model.

The toy PBO rollforward adds service and interest, subtracts benefits paid, and includes actuarial changes only if supplied. Asset rollforward adds actual return and contributions, then subtracts benefits. These are closed-system assumptions, not complete actuarial valuations. Settlements, curtailments, annuities, transition balances and changing dates are omitted.

Topic 715 presents service cost with compensation. Other cost components are separate and outside operating income when shown. Only service cost is eligible for capitalization in inventory or assets. Contributions do not justify treating all pension cost as operating or capitalizing all of it. This module does not assert legal funding requirements.

Worked example

Original hypothetical. Opening PBO 200,000, assets 150,000. Service 20,000; interest 10,000; expected return 12,000; actual return 9,000; prior-service amortization 3,000; contribution 30,000; benefits 15,000. No other changes. Find cost and ending balances.

  1. Periodic cost=20,000+10,000-12,000+3,000=21,000.
  2. Ending PBO=200,000+20,000+10,000-15,000=215,000.
  3. Ending assets=150,000+9,000+30,000-15,000=174,000.
  4. PBO less assets=41,000 underfunding, not period expense.
  5. Service cost 20,000 is presented with compensation; other net cost=1,000 is separate.
  6. Funding 30,000 and actual return 9,000 do not replace the cost components.
Practice problem and solution

New original hypothetical. Service 28,000; interest 14,000; expected return 16,000; prior-service amortization 2,000; loss amortization 3,000. Actual return 7,000 and contribution 40,000. Find periodic cost.

Cost=28,000+14,000-16,000+2,000+3,000=31,000. Service component=28,000; other net cost=3,000. Actual return and funding do not replace expected return.

Mental model: Cost, contribution and funding gap are different quantities.

Common trap: Substituting actual return or cash funding for periodic cost.

9. EPS counts time, not just shares

Learning goal: Time-weight common shares and compute net option dilution.

Basic EPS divides income available to common shareholders by weighted-average common shares. A halfway-through issue receives half-year weight. Ending shares are a snapshot, not necessarily the denominator. The cases assume ordinary shares, no participating securities, splits, stock dividends or preferred claims.

The treasury-stock method for plain dilutive options assumes exercise and repurchase at average market price. Incremental shares equal shares assumed issued less those assumed repurchased. These fully vested cash options have no unrecognized compensation or other proceeds adjustment. Hypothetical repurchase is an EPS computation, not a prediction of actual trading.

If exercise price exceeds average market price, the simple option is not added as a negative share adjustment. More generally, antidilutive potential shares are excluded. In the positive-income single-option cases here, a positive denominator increment with unchanged earnings lowers EPS and is dilutive. Loss periods and multiple instruments require broader control-number rules.

Use average market price, not closing price. Weight option increments if outstanding for only part of the period. All options here are outstanding all year. Compute full-precision ratios before rounding cents; rounded basic and diluted EPS can coincide even when exact ratios differ.

Worked example

Original hypothetical. Common earnings 220,000; 100,000 common shares all year plus 20,000 issued halfway. Fully vested all-year options on 10,000 shares at 12; average price 20. Find EPS.

  1. Weighted common=100,000+20,000(0.5)=110,000.
  2. Basic EPS=220,000/110,000=2.00.
  3. Option proceeds=10,000(12)=120,000.
  4. Repurchased shares=120,000/20=6,000.
  5. Increment=4,000; diluted denominator=114,000.
  6. Diluted EPS=220,000/114,000=1.9298245614, or 1.93.
  7. The positive-income case is dilutive; numerator remains unchanged.
Practice problem and solution

New original hypothetical. Common earnings 306,000; 120,000 shares all year plus 30,000 issued halfway. Fully vested all-year options on 20,000 shares at 15; average price 25. No other instruments. Compute diluted EPS to cents.

Weighted common=135,000. Proceeds=300,000; repurchases=12,000; increment=8,000. Diluted denominator=143,000. EPS=306,000/143,000=2.1398601399, or 2.14.

Mental model: Count time and net dilution, not snapshots.

Common trap: Adding gross option shares or using closing market price.

10. Convertible debt restores earnings too

Learning goal: Apply if-converted EPS and test dilution after other instruments.

If-converted assumes conversion at the beginning of the period or issuance if later. For plain debt entirely settled in shares, add back interest net of tax to earnings and add conversion shares to the denominator. A share-only adjustment ignores the interest that would not have been recognized after assumed conversion.

ASU 2020-06 removed treasury-stock treatment for convertible instruments in favor of if-converted. Current reproduced Topic 260 text has exceptions: principal required to settle in cash can change the numerator adjustment. That structure is excluded here. Principal and conversion value settle entirely in shares and no nondiscretionary income-based adjustment exists.

With positive continuing-operations earnings, compare incremental earnings per new share with the EPS ratio before adding that instrument. Lower incremental ratio reduces combined EPS and is dilutive; higher is excluded. Sequence multiple instruments from most dilutive. Options generally enter first since their numerator adjustment is zero. Do not compare each instrument only against basic EPS.

All instruments are outstanding all year. No preferred claims, participating securities, discontinued operations, contingent conversion or other numerator effects are present. Tax rates are toy assumptions, not statutory-rate claims. The transfer combines options with a new conversion decision rather than merely substituting values into the worked example.

Worked example

Original hypothetical. Common earnings 300,000; shares 100,000. All-year plain debt settles fully in 20,000 shares, annual interest 25,000, assumed tax rate 20%. Find diluted EPS.

  1. Basic EPS=300,000/100,000=3.00.
  2. Interest addback=25,000(1-0.20)=20,000.
  3. Incremental ratio=20,000/20,000=1.00.
  4. 1.00<3.00, so debt is dilutive.
  5. Adjusted numerator=320,000; denominator=120,000.
  6. Diluted EPS=2.6666666667, displayed 2.67.
  7. 300,000/120,000=2.50 would omit the numerator adjustment.
Practice problem and solution

New original hypothetical. Common earnings 480,000; common shares 160,000 all year. Fully vested all-year options on 40,000 shares at 12, average price 20. All-year plain debt fully share-settled into 20,000 shares; interest 70,000, toy tax rate 20%. No other effects. Find final diluted EPS to cents.

Basic EPS=3.00. Options: proceeds 480,000; repurchases 24,000; increment 16,000. Post-option EPS=480,000/176,000=2.7272727273. Debt addback=56,000; incremental ratio=2.8. Exclude because 2.8>2.72727. Final diluted EPS=2.73. Including debt would give 536,000/196,000=2.7346938776, which is higher and therefore antidilutive despite the same rounded cents.

Mental model: Potential shares enter only if dilutive in sequence.

Common trap: Testing every instrument against basic EPS alone.

11. Business combinations: pay, measure, leave goodwill

Learning goal: Apply the acquisition method and compute goodwill as a residual.

A business combination is accounted for with the acquisition method. Identify the acquirer, set the acquisition date, then recognize the identifiable assets acquired and liabilities assumed at their acquisition-date fair values. Most items follow this rule. Income taxes and some contingencies are exceptions measured under other guidance.

Goodwill is a residual. It equals the consideration transferred, plus the fair value of any noncontrolling interest, plus the fair value of any equity the acquirer already held, minus the net identifiable assets at fair value. Nobody measures goodwill directly.

PieceMeasured atEffect on goodwill
Cash paidAmount paidRaises it
Noncontrolling interestFair valueRaises it
Identifiable net assetsFair valueLowers it

If the sum is below net identifiable assets, the acquirer recognizes a bargain purchase gain in earnings on the acquisition date. Goodwill is then tested for impairment later and is not amortized for public business entities. Acquirer costs such as legal fees are expensed, not added to goodwill. All numbers here are invented teaching numbers.

Worked example

Original hypothetical. Buyer pays 800,000 cash for 100 percent of a target. Identifiable assets are 1,000,000 and liabilities 300,000, both at fair value. Find goodwill.

  1. Net identifiable assets=1,000,000-300,000=700,000.
  2. No NCI and no prior stake, so the sum is 800,000.
  3. Goodwill=800,000-700,000=100,000.
  4. If the buyer paid 650,000, the result would be a 50,000 bargain purchase gain.
Practice problem and solution

New original hypothetical. Buyer acquires 80 percent of a target for 560,000 cash. The fair value of the 20 percent NCI is 130,000. Identifiable net assets at fair value are 600,000. No prior stake. Find goodwill.

Sum=560,000+130,000=690,000. Goodwill=690,000-600,000=90,000. Using only the 560,000 paid would give a wrong negative 40,000 gap.

Mental model: Goodwill is a fair-value residual, not a number anyone appraises directly.

Common trap: Forgetting NCI fair value in a partial purchase.

12. Consolidation: one entity, no internal profit

Learning goal: Eliminate intercompany profit and split income between parent and NCI.

Consolidated statements present a parent and its subsidiaries as one economic entity. Anything the group sells to itself is not a sale to outsiders. So intercompany balances (loans, receivables, payables) cancel, and intercompany sales and profit are removed until the goods reach a customer.

Suppose a subsidiary sells inventory to the parent at a profit and the parent still holds half at year end. The profit on that half is unrealized from the group view. It is eliminated from consolidated income and inventory. The standard says this elimination is not reduced by the presence of a noncontrolling interest. For an upstream sale the eliminated profit can be shared between parent and NCI.

ItemConsolidated treatment
Intercompany loanEliminate both sides
Unsold intercompany profitEliminate
NCI share of incomeShown below net income

Net income is reported in total, then split between the parent and the NCI. NCI is shown in equity, separate from parent equity. The numbers in this lesson are invented. Consolidation scope, such as variable interest entities, is not covered.

Worked example

Original hypothetical. Parent owns 75 percent of Sub. Sub reports net income 100,000, which includes 20,000 profit on goods sold to Parent, with 10,000 of that profit still unsold at year end. Find the NCI share of income.

  1. Unrealized profit=10,000.
  2. Adjusted sub income=100,000-10,000=90,000.
  3. NCI share=25% of 90,000=22,500.
  4. Parent share of the sub=67,500.
Practice problem and solution

New original hypothetical. Parent owns 75 percent of Sub. Parent income excluding Sub is 300,000. Sub reports net income 120,000, which includes 30,000 profit from selling inventory to Parent; half of that inventory is still held. NCI is allocated its share of adjusted Sub income. Find net income attributable to Parent.

Unrealized profit=15,000. Adjusted Sub income=105,000. NCI=25% of 105,000=26,250. Consolidated income=300,000+105,000=405,000. Parent share=405,000-26,250=378,750.

Mental model: Consolidated income counts only profit earned outside the group.

Common trap: Cutting NCI share before removing intercompany profit.

13. Equity method versus fair value for investments

Learning goal: Pick the method by influence and track the carrying amount.

An investor with significant influence over an investee uses the equity method. A holding of 20 percent or more of voting stock leads to a presumption of significant influence. Under 20 percent leads to a presumption of no influence. Both are presumptions and can be overcome, so the percentages are a guide, not a bright line.

Under the equity method, the investment starts at cost. The investor adds its share of investee earnings, which goes through the investor income statement, and subtracts dividends received. Dividends are a return of the investment, not income. The share of earnings also reflects adjustments similar to consolidation, such as removing intra-entity profit and amortizing basis differences.

Equity securities without influence fall under ASC 321. The default is fair value, with unrealized holding gains and losses in earnings. There is no available-for-sale category for equity securities. An entity may elect a measurement alternative for securities without a readily determinable fair value.

StakeMethodIncome effect
30%, influenceEquity methodShare of earnings
10%, no influenceFair valuePrice changes

All figures are invented.

Worked example

Original hypothetical. Investor pays 300,000 for 30 percent of an investee with significant influence. Investee earns 200,000 and pays 100,000 in dividends. Find the year-end carrying amount and income recognized.

  1. Share of earnings=30% of 200,000=60,000.
  2. Dividends received=30% of 100,000=30,000.
  3. Carrying amount=300,000+60,000-30,000=330,000.
  4. Income recognized=60,000.
Practice problem and solution

New original hypothetical. Investor pays 500,000 for 25 percent of an investee and has significant influence. Investee earns 240,000 and pays 80,000 in dividends. No basis differences. Find the year-end carrying amount.

Share of earnings=25% of 240,000=60,000. Dividends=25% of 80,000=20,000. Carrying amount=500,000+60,000-20,000=540,000.

Mental model: Influence picks the method; the carrying amount tracks the investee, not its dividends.

Common trap: Booking equity method dividends as income.

14. Foreign currency: translation versus remeasurement

Learning goal: Compute a translation adjustment and place it correctly.

Start with the functional currency, the currency of the primary economic environment of the entity. If a foreign subsidiary functional currency is a foreign currency, its statements are translated into the reporting currency. Assets and liabilities use the current rate. Income uses rates on the transaction dates, usually a weighted average. Equity uses historical rates.

The mix of rates will not balance on its own. The plug is the translation adjustment, shown in other comprehensive income and not in net income. When there are no equity transactions in the year, the adjustment equals beginning net assets times the change from beginning to ending rate, plus net income times the gap between the ending rate and the average rate.

LineRate used
Assets, liabilitiesYear-end
Revenue, expenseAverage
EquityHistorical

Remeasurement is a different process, used when the functional currency is the reporting currency but books are kept in another currency. Its gains and losses go to net income. The remeasurement rules in this paragraph are textbook statements not checked against a fetched source. All rates and balances are invented.

Worked example

Original hypothetical. Foreign sub beginning net assets 20,000 FC; net income 5,000 FC; no dividends or capital changes. Beginning rate 1.00, ending 1.20, average 1.10 (reporting currency per FC). Find the translation adjustment.

  1. Beginning net assets component=20,000(1.20-1.00)=4,000.
  2. Net income component=5,000(1.20-1.10)=500.
  3. Translation adjustment=4,500, a gain in OCI.
Practice problem and solution

New original hypothetical. Foreign sub beginning net assets 50,000 FC; net income 8,000 FC; no equity transactions. Beginning rate 0.50, ending rate 0.60, average rate 0.55. Find the translation adjustment in the reporting currency.

Beginning component=50,000(0.60-0.50)=5,000. Income component=8,000(0.60-0.55)=400. Total=5,400.

Mental model: Different rates by line create a plug that lives in OCI.

Common trap: Putting translation adjustments in net income.

15. Derivatives and hedge accounting basics

Learning goal: Distinguish fair value and cash flow hedges.

Derivatives are recorded on the balance sheet at fair value. Without hedge accounting, the change in fair value goes straight to earnings, which can create swings that do not match the risk being managed. Hedge accounting is optional and requires documentation and an effectiveness assessment.

In a fair value hedge, the hedging instrument gain or loss is recognized currently in earnings. The change in fair value of the hedged item attributable to the hedged risk adjusts its carrying amount and is also in earnings. Both effects sit in the same income statement line, so they offset.

In a cash flow hedge of a forecasted transaction, when the hedge is highly effective the change in the derivative fair value is recorded in other comprehensive income. That amount moves to earnings in the period the hedged transaction affects earnings.

HedgeDerivative changeHedged item
Fair valueEarnings nowAdjusted, earnings
Cash flowOCI, then earningsForecast, not adjusted

This lesson ignores effectiveness testing details, portfolio layer methods and tax effects. All amounts are invented.

Worked example

Original hypothetical. A fair value hedge swap gains 6,000 in the period. The hedged item loses 5,500 in fair value due to the hedged risk. Find the net effect on earnings.

  1. Swap gain in earnings=6,000.
  2. Hedged item loss in earnings=5,500.
  3. Net earnings effect=6,000-5,500=500 gain.
  4. The hedged item carrying amount is reduced by 5,500.
Practice problem and solution

New original hypothetical. A forward contract is a highly effective cash flow hedge of a forecasted inventory sale. Fair value changes: first quarter plus 12,000, second quarter minus 3,000. Ignore taxes. The sale has not happened yet. Find the accumulated OCI balance at the end of the second quarter.

OCI=12,000-3,000=9,000. Nothing is reclassified yet because the hedged sale has not affected earnings.

Mental model: Fair value hedges match in earnings; cash flow hedges park the change in OCI.

Common trap: Sending every hedge result to earnings immediately.

16. Partnerships and not-for-profit equity

Learning goal: Allocate partnership income and read net assets of a not-for-profit.

A partnership allocates income by agreement. A common sequence is salary allowances, then interest on capital, then the remainder in the agreed ratio. Each step is allocated even if income is small. The partners capital accounts then change by their allocated share, minus any withdrawals. This allocation approach is a standard textbook one, not read from a fetched source here.

StepBasis
SalaryAgreed amount
InterestRate on capital
RemainderAgreed ratio

A not-for-profit has no owners. Its equity is called net assets. Under ASU 2016-14, net assets are reported in two groups: net assets with donor restrictions and net assets without donor restrictions. Donor restrictions come from the donor, not from the board.

State and local governments follow GASB standards, with government-wide and fund statements. This lesson names GASB only for orientation. It does not teach GASB mechanics, and that point is not checked against a fetched source. All amounts are invented.

Worked example

Original hypothetical. Partnership income 100,000. Partner A salary 30,000, partner B salary 10,000, remainder split 50/50. Find each total allocation.

  1. Salaries total 40,000.
  2. Remainder=100,000-40,000=60,000.
  3. Each gets 30,000 of the remainder.
  4. A total=60,000; B total=40,000.
Practice problem and solution

New original hypothetical. Partnership income 90,000. A salary 20,000, B none. Interest 5 percent on beginning capital: A 100,000, B 200,000. Remainder split 40 percent A and 60 percent B. Find total allocated to A.

Interest A=5,000; B=10,000. After salary and interest, remainder=90,000-20,000-15,000=55,000. A gets 40 percent=22,000. A total=20,000+5,000+22,000=47,000.

Mental model: Partnerships follow the agreement; charities report two kinds of net assets.

Common trap: Splitting everything by the final ratio.

17. Conceptual framework and the GAAP hierarchy

Learning goal: Use the objectives and qualitative characteristics to judge an accounting choice.

FASB Concepts Statement No. 8 states that financial information must be relevant and faithfully represent what it purports to represent to be useful. Comparability, verifiability, timeliness and understandability enhance usefulness but cannot make irrelevant information useful. The objective is to give information to existing and potential investors, lenders and other creditors for decisions about providing resources.

The framework also defines elements such as assets, liabilities, equity, revenues and expenses, and addresses recognition and measurement. Materiality is a judgment about whether omitting or misstating information could change a decision. Going concern is the assumption that the entity continues to operate. The parts of this paragraph beyond the usefulness characteristics are not checked against a fetched source here.

Expense matching is a practice idea: costs are recognized in the period the benefit is used. A one year insurance premium paid in October is spread over twelve months, not expensed at payment.

The Accounting Standards Codification is the source of authoritative US GAAP for nongovernmental entities; SEC rules also apply to registrants. That statement is not checked against a fetched source here. The framework guides standard setters and preparers when no standard applies. It does not override a standard. All numbers are invented.

Worked example

Original hypothetical. On September 1 a company pays 36,000 for twelve months of insurance. Year end is December 31. Find expense for the year and the prepaid asset.

  1. Monthly cost=36,000/12=3,000.
  2. Months used=4 (Sept to Dec).
  3. Expense=12,000.
  4. Prepaid asset=36,000-12,000=24,000.
Practice problem and solution

New original hypothetical. A company pays 24,000 on October 1 for twelve months of insurance coverage. Its year ends December 31. Find the insurance expense recognized for the year.

Monthly cost=24,000/12=2,000. Coverage used=3 months (Oct, Nov, Dec). Expense=6,000. The remaining 18,000 is a prepaid asset.

Mental model: Usefulness rests on relevance and faithful representation; standards outrank the framework.

Common trap: Treating the framework as a rule that overrides a standard.